Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 00:07
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
A Manson Family member was recommended for parole again. But she's not free just yet - NPR
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Miley Cyrus Reveals What Caused Her Estrangement from Dad Billy Ray for the First Time - instyle.com
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Review: At $349, AMD’s 16GB Radeon RX 9060 XT is the new midrange GPU to beat - Ars Technica
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.